Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 13:22
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
What were the reasons for Stalin and Brezhnev's dislike of Khrushchev?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Have you ever had sex with your mother-in-law? If so, how was it and did your wife ever find out?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.